Practice Exam

G8A09

1. What type of modulation is used by FT8?

• A. Amplitude compressed AM
• B. 8-tone frequency shift keying
• C. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
• D. Vestigial sideband

G5B04

2. How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

• A. 6 watts
• B. 24 watts
• C. 60 watts
• D. 2.4 watts

G3B06

3. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They are refracted back to Earth
• B. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
• C. They pass through the ionosphere
• D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G5A06

4. How does a capacitor react to AC?

• A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

G1A11

5. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• B. The upper frequency portion
• C. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The lower frequency portion

G7C11

6. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Modulation
• B. Detection
• C. Filtering
• D. All these choices are correct

G1B05

7. Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

• A. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
• B. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use

G2B07

8. Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

• A. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
• B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
• C. Follow the voluntary band plan
• D. All these choices are correct

G4A12

9. Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

• A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
• B. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
• C. To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
• D. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

G1E04

10. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• D. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

G5C04

11. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 300 ohms
• C. 150 ohms
• D. 67 ohms

G2E04

12. Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

• A. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
• B. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
• C. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station's frequency
• D. Always call on the station's frequency

G0B12

13. What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

• A. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
• B. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
• C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
• D. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty

G9B12

14. What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

• A. 21 feet
• B. 11 feet
• C. 16 feet
• D. 8 feet

G9D12

15. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Inverted L
• B. Inverted V
• C. Sloper
• D. Lazy H

G9C11

16. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• B. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• C. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• D. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

G2D01

17. What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
• B. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
• C. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
• D. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

G4E04

18. Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
• B. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• D. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

G3C01

19. Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The D region
• B. The F2 region
• C. The F1 region
• D. The E region

G9A07

20. What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

• A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
• B. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
• C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
• D. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long

G6A02

21. What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

• A. High voltage
• B. Long life
• C. High discharge current
• D. Rapid recharge

G8C11

22. How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

• A. On and off
• B. Dot and dash
• C. Mark and space
• D. High and low

G4B03

23. Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. A field strength meter
• B. A sidetone monitor
• C. An oscilloscope
• D. A wavemeter

G8B12

24. What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

• A. Heterodyning
• B. Rolloff
• C. Detection
• D. Intermodulation

G6B04

25. What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

• A. 50 MHz
• B. 40 GHz
• C. 500 MHz
• D. 4 GHz

G1C01

26. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 2000 watts PEP output
• D. 1000 watts PEP output

G7B01

27. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To limit the modulation index
• B. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• C. To keep the carrier on frequency
• D. To eliminate self-oscillations

G4C02

28. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
• D. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

G1D12

29. When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

• A. Those of both the remote station's country and the FCC
• B. Those of the remote station's country and the FCC's third-party regulations
• C. Only those of the remote station's country
• D. Only those of the FCC

G3A08

30. How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

• A. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
• B. Improve ground wave propagation
• C. Improve high-latitude HF propagation
• D. Degrade ground wave propagation

G7A10

31. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 5
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 4

G2A06

32. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• B. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
• C. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

G2C07

33. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Key clicks
• B. Chirpy or unstable signal
• C. 100 percent copy
• D. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

G4D07

34. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 4 times
• B. Approximately 8 times
• C. Approximately 2 times
• D. Approximately 1.5 times

G0A11

35. What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

• A. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
• B. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
• C. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
• D. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation